Questions about the text Wars of words by Tony Crowley.

1. What does “elocution” mean? What are elocution lessons? Do they exist in Spanish?

Oratorical or literary expression of thought; literary ‘style’ as distinguished from ‘matter’; the power or art of appropriate and effective expression. Those classes provide the skills, awareness and techniques to speak clearly and be understood. They are useful to give you confidence to speak in public or to apply for a job. In Spanish does not exist as a need of modify your accent or your pronunciation but nowadays many people go to classes of How to speak in public or how to use effectively your voice.

2. What do “polyglossia” and “monoglossia” mean?

Polyglossia.- The coexistence of two or more languages, or distinct varieties of the same language, within a speech community.

Monoglossia.- A speech community of only one language.

3. What kind of English does Puttenham recommend?

“the poet shall therefore take that usual speech of the court, and that of London and the shires lying about London, within lx miles, and not much above” Puttenham 1936: 144-5

4. What does “copious” mean? Look up pronunciation

Copious.- abounding in; having a plentiful command of language for the expression of ideas. [’kəʋpɪəs]

5. What does “trope” mean?

Trope.- A significant or recurrent theme; a motif.

6. Why does Crowley call the standardization process a war?

In the eighteenth-century Britain is a series of wars of words. It is a society at war abroad and at home. Language is related to questions of national identity, political history, the status of the colonies, the construction of the public sphere, regionality, gender and social class. There were strict terms about what could be said, and what was forbidden, how things could be spoken, and how not.

7. What does “encomium” mean?

Encomium.- A formal or high-flown expression of praise; a eulogy, panegyric.

8. Who wrote the “Proposal for Correcting, Improving and Ascertaining the English Tongue” (1712)?

Jonathan Swift (1667-1745)

9. Do Johnson and Swift agree that the English language has degenerated?

Both say that it is something to be done for the benefit of the language and live the British Political ideologies apart.

Johnson said in the Preface to the Dictionary that “tongues, like governments, have a natural tendency to degeneration; we have long preserved our constitution, let us make some struggles for our language” (Johnson 1806: II, 64) and Swift’s use the political analogy to say that those “who would not have us by any means think of preserving our Civil or Religious Constitution, because we are engaged in a war abroad” (Swift 1957: 5-6) likewise he dismisses those who would postpone any reform of the language to a time of peace. Swift accords enormous significance to linguistic reform.

10. Swift proposed an academy. Who else?

The idea of an academy was not an unusual one in the eighteenth century: it was proposed by Dryden, Daniel Defoe, Addison and Wilson (1724). This idea also re-appeared in the 1750’s with George Harris

11. Why were the Whigs against an academy?

Whig.- From 1689, an adherent of one of the two great parliamentary and political parties in England, and (at length) in Great Britain. (Opposed to TORY).  Since the middle of the 19th century mostly superseded (exc. as a historical term) by Liberal , express adherence to moderate or antiquated Liberal principles.

Tory.- From 1689, the name of one of the two great parliamentary and political parties in England, and (at length) in Great Britain.(Opposed to WHIG). As a formal name, ‘Tory’ was superseded by CONSERVATIVE, But ‘Tory’ is still retained as expressing attachment to a policy either more old-fashioned or more positive and constructive than that of ordinary Conservatism Opposed originally and during the 18th c. to WHIG; later to LIBERAL, and (still more) to RADICAL.

The proposal of Swift engages directly with politics. For Whigs the academy was identified with France, and thus with the Stuart claimants to the monarchy. Their response by words from Oldmixon was that the Tories “would not only force their principles upon us, but their language, wherein they endeavour to ape their good friends the French, who for these three or fourscore years have been attempting to make their Tongue as Imperious as their Power.” (Oldmixon 1712:2)

12. What does Sheridan mean by “the genius of our people”?

Thomas Sheridan said that an Academy in Britain would not work by dint of “our constitution and the genius of our people” because English have no idea of submitting to any laws to which they do not give their own consent. They do not want to be dictated to.

13. What reason does Swift give for the “decay of Latin”?

He claims that the main reason is the change of their Government into a Tyranny, which ruined the Study of Eloquence; there being no further Use or Encouragement for popular Orators. When there is a dictator, inside an Empire, there is no need of eloquence.

14. What does “suffer” in line 2 of page 66 mean?

Thomson thinks that with standardisation the language of Shakespeare or Milton is going to suffer, it is not going to happen as it was the language of Chaucer, that he claims that “shines”. Many writers saw the fact that the language changes historically as a positive threat to their fame and reputation.

15. Who was the first person, involved in German cultural nationalism, to make the link between language and nation?

Herder

16. What was Sheridan’s solution to the problem of divergence in pronunciation?

He proposed that the clergy should be taught pronunciation in order that they could then act as the medium by which it could be propagated. They would be particularly effective since “it is part of the duty of every person in the nation to attend divine service at least one day in the week” (Sheridan 1756: 247)

17. How did several authors describe other European languages? Do you agree with this kind of classification?

French: “flimsy”, Italian merely “neat”, Spanish “grave”, Saxon, High Ducht “Belgic” and the teutonic tongues “hoarsy” and “rough”, English “lofty and manly”. I cannot agree with this classification because is classist, grovel and limitated. It depends on who talks and the education a person has to make a language sounds rough or nice.

18. In which novel did Daniel Defoe capture the “colonial fantasy”?

Robinson Crusoe

19. Locke thought that learning Latin was not necessary for which group of people?

Trade and commerce men.

20. How did learning to speak English using standard English empower people?

It was a way to rise upon your station. The acquisition of a correct Mode of Expression will procure Respect and Advancement in Life. In the Pulpit, The Senate and the Bar, and in all Public Assemblies, it is necessary to speak with Purity and Elegance” (ibid: 30)

21. What kind of English is deemed to be “proper” English?

Jones in 1701 said “it is commonly used in England, particularly in London, the Universities, or at Court” It is found in the upper and middle ranks, over the whole British Empire.

22. How was the inculcation of linguistic patterns carried out with middle-class children?

By means of discipline, punishment and education. Basically, rewards and punishments.

23. What was the purpose of training women linguistically in the 18^th century according to Crowley?

There were two purposes: to fulfil the role of the mother, passing on pure language to the child and to act as companion to the male in the public sphere.

24. Why did Locke warn against children talking to servants?

Servants can influence negatively to children

25. What was the difference between the mistakes made by the working classes and those made by the gentry according to Sheridan?

Upper classes can have deviations only in certain words but lower classes, specially illiterates have the most parts discordant and mistaken.